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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 01:25

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Is Baby Netanyahu trying to start a "greater Middle East conflict” in order to stay in office and prevent his corruption trial?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

If Russia needs the resources to fund the war in Ukraine, why doesn’t it throw open its doors to visa free western tourism? Enough people would be interested, & it would start to get some hard currency as €, CHF, £, SEK, $, JPY in the tills at shops.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.